Is Every Muslim a Kaffir - non believer in Islam
Your selective sympathy is showing, and telling. The secular crowd may have
a problem with you guys being separate, but most of us Hindus don't. And
your most serious problems are the conscious result of your policy. It would
be edifying to trace out your history for the past fifty years; the actions
of your politicians and generals would make a comedy of errors, if not for
their tragic consequences. As your Musharraf said in a speech - you guys
don't even treat your own fellow Muslims
properly. Hardly our fault there.
Our military actions have always been retaliatory. What did you expect us to
do? Turn the other cheek?
People get killed in India, both Muslims and Hindus. In a country of a
billion people, if you look hard enough, you can get enough examples to
support just about any claim that you want. In order to contrast India with
Pakistan, I would look at the most basic indicators that cannot be
manipulated by either governments or media.
1. Right to life - how does their population figure?
If you look at the total Muslim populations in India and in Pakistan, the
fraction of Muslims in India has not reduced since 1947. Surest sign of
'right to life'. What's the corresponding number for Pakistan? Why?
2. Right to liberty - can they say what they want?
You can sample Indian media and government and see a generous amount of
Muslim names. Apart from Ardheshir Cowasji in Dawn, I am yet to see a single
non-Muslim name (forget Hindu) in Pakistani media. Why?
3. Right to pursuit of happiness: - can they do what they want?
You can find Muslim businessmen in India that have made a fortune. Premji
for example, if you care to follow the software industry. What are the
corresponding figures for Pakistan for non-Muslim businessmen? Why?
As for 'discrimination', I assume you are talking about the lack of
proportional representation. Muslims as a whole have an exploding population
(not just Indian Muslims). If you don't have a welfare state, and most of us
don't, a parent usually has to foot the bill to enable the kid to compete.
If you have one or two kids, it is easy for you to enable them to educate
themselves and compete successfully. If you have eight or ten, you can't.
You end up sending them to work as child labor, or to a Madrassa. These kids
afterwards are unable to compete, especially in a place like India where the
competition is fierce for jobs, thanks to fifty years of socialist policy.
The differential growth of the Muslim population makes it fairly obvious
that the above effects would show up more in the Muslim category.
We have so far treated Muslims better than a lot of other countries -
certainly better than how Pakistan has treated Hindus. It may not measure up
to your biased standards, but we won't lose sleep over that.
If you are Pakistani, after what you did in 1971, you most certainly should
not to speak for B'desh.
And if you do, please provide some examples. Turkey? Algeria? Indonesia?
Malaysia? Brunei?
WW1 ended in 1919. Close to a hundred years ago. Why have these countries
remained totalitarian? Greece was part of the Ottoman empire too; that's a
democracy today. Why?
why
Not
fabric
Really? So, if Muslims are that civilized and don't wipe out non-Muslims,
why has the non-Muslim population in Pakistan reduced to 3% in fifty years?
By your 'logic' above, if Muslims could 'tolerate' Hindus for 'hundreds' of
years in a Muslim ruled area, why not for the last fifty?
In contrast, Muslims in India are thriving in India, as pointed out above.
So, did the 'hundreds of years of presumably civilized Muslim rule' not
carry over to Pakistan? After all, your elite regards itself as the
inheritors of the
Mughal (1528-1856) and perhaps the preceding Sultanate legacy (...-1498) as
well.
Muslims did not wipe out Hindus in India, but it was not for want of trying,
a fact attested to by Muslim historians who highlighted the massacres with
obvious pride. And as for successful extermination, it depends on which part
of India you are talking about. All the land till the Bamiyan Buddhas and
perhaps beyond was Hindu/Buddhist/Jain in culture. Not a trace of any of
that remained after the Muslims appeared. Why? And what is the etymology of
'Hindu Kush'?
I do know my history, and yours as well. But do you? If you have been
educated in Pakistan, I would suggest that you study the sub-continental
history from non-Pakistani books.
PS: I noticed that this entire thread is confined to sci, and is not
crossposted to scp. I am curious what made you go all the posts and respond
in this thread, because you are not an Indian.
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