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2
4th July 11:01
External User
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the mysteries of counting
I have something like a question for you, maybe related to this. Do
you mind if, while asking it, I do an impression of you, and load my
question down with a lot of expository chatter? Impressions are a form
of flattery. The highest!
The natural numbers categorify to finite sets (is how you would put
it.)
This means that there is a nice way to associate a natural number to a
finite set, and under this association certain operations on finite
sets are...associated...with certain operations on natural numbers.
I learned this in grade school. The reason you (OK, I admit it (but
*I'm* anonymous): we) like to use the word "categorify" when talking
about this is because it gives us a glamorous and mysterious question
to ask about almost any mathematical thing: what does the thing
categorify to? Glamorous because there is a richer theory of the
categorified thing than of the original thing ("finite sets" is short
for "finite sets and functions between them"; these are more
interesting than natural numbers, which are interesting), and
mysterious because the question is hard to answer.
Like, the integers? Is a mathematical thing. What does it categorify
to?
There are probably all kinds of answers to this question, in varying
degrees of half-bakedery. I will sketch the one I know best, which is
my favorite.
The integers are fake! Or, at least, fabricated. You fabricate them
by pretending that you can subtract a big number from a small one. The
idea is to fabricate the categorification of the integers from the
categorification of the natural numbers.
I know how to do this because I read a paper by Graeme Segal called
"categories and cohomology theories". But I have to bamboozle you in
two different ways; the first way is serious, and is what my question
is about. The second isn't, at least if you're a true believer in
infinity-categories.
You're still reading!
The first bamboozle is that I don't actually know how to do this for
"finite sets and functions between them," but only for "finite sets and
bijections between them." The reason is that bijections can be
inverted, and other functions can't be. The reason I care about that
is the second bamboozle.
The second bamboozle is that part of the glamorous, mysterious
hocus-pocus I'm going on about allows me to replace categories where
everything can be inverted with topological spaces. For real!
Basically, I will build the space by giving it, to start, as many
points as there are finite sets. Then I'll draw as many paths between
two points as there are bijections between the sets. Then I will do
whatever's necessary to make sure that the "higher homotopy groups
vanish." A similar thing doesn't work for functions that aren't
bijections, because I don't know how to draw a path you can't invert
(draw backwards).
So now I have a space that I'll call X. It is a satisfactory answer to
the question "what do natural numbers categorify to" if you only care
about bijections and you're a true believer. Now, I'm going to
fabricate what the integers categorify to, by pretending that I can
always subtract one element of X from another.
Oops: first I should tell you how I *add* two points of X. The answer
is disjoint union. Some points of X are finite sets. Some others are
points that lie on paths which are bijections between finite sets. I
can add these kinds of points by saying "disjoint union." It's a
tedious-to-verify, but I hope believable, fact that I can make sense of
this for any two points on X.
Now, if you know how to build the integers from the natural numbers,
you know how to build a "categorification" of the integers from X. The
answer will be another topological space Y; it's a very famous space
whose homotopy groups are the stable homotopy groups of spheres.
That deserves a dramatic pause, and an attribution. It's called the
"Barrat-Priddy/Quillen" theorem.
OK, but this space doesn't have the property that it's higher homotopy
groups vanish, and so it doesn't come from a category. It comes from
an infinity-category! I don't know what that means! No one does. But
they do know that an infinity category has things called 1-morphisms,
2-morphisms, 3-morphisms,... and they know that it should be possible
to tell when one of these things is invertible, and that if every
single one of them is invertible then you should be able to replace it
with a topological space, and that the topological space is a
satisfactory replacement for the infinity-category.
So, my question is, what if I want to categorify functions that aren't
bijections? The right answer should be an infinity-category Z whose
invertible morphisms form the
infinity-category-that-is-a-topological-space Y. Since I don't know
what an infinity-category is, and neither do you, that's a tough
question. So I'll ask an easier question:
Start with Z. If you throw out all 1-morphisms, 2-morphisms,
3-morphisms, ... that aren't invertible, then you get something you can
replace with a topological space. But if you keep all the 1-morphisms,
and only throw away non-invertible 2-morphisms, 3-morphisms, etc., you
get something you can replace with a "topological category." I *do*
know what that means! It means a category whose set of arrows is a
topological space.
My question is: *which* topological space is it? Graeme Segal doesn't
give a good answer...
Thanks!
A. de T.
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