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19th November 06:38
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Posts: 1
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If that is not a joke, you are insane.
I don't know what course you took in calculus. It must have skipped indefinite integration. The equations are the picture. Equations can deal with N dimensions. No human, that I know of, can visualize N dimensions. You are trying to make he we in your analogy but it is not working. The motion he knows or the motion we as 3D beings outside his world know. His motion may not be orthogonal to his 2D world from our point of view. It could be oblique. Not so, he could be oblique. Orthogonality is an extra assumption. Huh? Rotation about which axis? If he's a mathematician and you give him equations he will. If he's a physicist and you tell him an experiment that cannot be explained without the theory of embedding in a 3D world, then he will. Why orthogonal and not oblique. Why only a fourth dimension? Why not N extra dimensions? Or oblique. Again. About which axis? I think that relativity does this with time as the fourth dimension already - for Sagac anyway. Brillet Hall I still think probably a spurious signal. Tom Clarke -- Posted via Mailgate.ORG Server - http://www.Mailgate.ORG |
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2nd December 14:19
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Posts: 1
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Theory A makes no use of the value V and theory A is also
able to explain every observed experiment. Theory B says V is observable. But this means that according to theory B there is an experiment E whose outcome depends on the value of V. If there were no such experiment, then there is no way B could determine the vlaue of V since all experiments would be independent of the value of V. But theory A can explain the results of experiment E independently of the value of V. But this means that the results of E cannot depend of V. If this were not so A could not explain E since E would have different results depending on the value of V and A does not have any way to utilize the value of V in its explanations. So there is a contradiction. If A explains all experiments there can be no such theory B. .......... Yes perfectly good. What is imperfect about it? ........... What is the experiment E that A cannot explain? Tom Clarke -- Posted via Mailgate.ORG Server - http://www.Mailgate.ORG |
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7th December 06:39
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Posts: 1
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Think of it as a gedanken.
Theories in practice have a domain of applicability. No one would expect GR to explain arthritis. But GR is expected to explain anything having to do with gravity. So far it has succeeded. I was really thinking of the velocity of the ether. But with regard to the F'ers I don't know that they are moving across the room. That is only a hypothesis to see if anything useful emerges. The history of science has been that the nose of the scientist is rubbed in the discrepancy. Mercury's perihelion advanced before anyone knew of flaws in gravity (probably they were doing the accurate measures in hope of the fame of discovering a new planet, though). The photoelectric effect just did not work they way the wave theory of light said it should. Etc. etc. Now scientists have caught onto the game and are always on the watch for anomalies and the fame and fortune that would attend such discovery. Yes I recall writing that. How will you twist it? A contradiction actually. If he can process data from experiments in such a way as to reveal some new fact - like V- then V is not truly unobservable. A better word would be "veiled". [e.g see "Veiled reality" by Bernard d'Espagnat] If something is unobservable then no theory can make it observable. Perhaps if it was just difficult to observe "veiled", or if it were a mistake that it was unobservable it might be the case that it is observable. It is fact dependent. Whether we humans know that it is observable or not is theory dependent. Our theories have no influence of the facts of reality. Well then theory A is wrong, if that is the case. Then theory A is wrong. So there is an experiment, a fact of reality, that depends on something corresponding the variable V. So B is true but A is false. V was not unobservable after all. It was observable all along. It just took a bit of work to find it. ............. But A does not need V and explains E perfectly well in the cases I have in mind. So where is the experiment that needs V? This would have to be an experiment that when V=0 comes out one way and when V=1 comes out another way (without loss of generality scale so V=0 and V=1 are possible values). Theory B could explain this nicely, but A would be hamstrung. In fact the results of the experiment would constitute a V detector. So what is an experiment E which corresponds to different values of V? Tom Clarke -- Posted via Mailgate.ORG Server - http://www.Mailgate.ORG |
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6th February 04:03
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Posts: 1
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In SR there is no absolute time standard. Ergo there cannot
be an absolute ether velocity standard. Did you mean to imply this? ...................... Is not the BH apparatus ultimately an electronic device? That is non-inertial motion, or course. That is also a non-inertial situation. GR instead of SR. I didn't say they wouldn't work. But that they would work differently, requring retuning and the like. ................................ You don't seem to get my point that everytime an electronic apparatus works as expected in a moving laboratory that such is in effect a test of the principle of relativity, that is of the independence of the speed of light on the _constant/inertial_ speed of the laboratory. ............................ Dennis. Please quote Su's prediction for the value of aberration. ................... I don't know how to respond. But here is the context Clarke wrote: >> No. Su explicity says his theory does not account for aberration. I still don't know how to respond as I have no idea what Dennis means by "different theories all labelled SR, GR and QM" Of course string theory is different from gauge theory/standard model, but both are quantum theories. As far as I know there is only one GR or SR. LET claims same predictions as SR but they are different theories (I have doubts about LET dealing with QM to make QFT). How do you design particle accelerators with your theory? ................. That was too quick. Since gravity in your theory is caused by flow of ether particles toward the sun (for planetary orbit case), how do you prevent aberration of the direction of motion of the particles relative to the moving planets from causing a tangential force component and therefore causing the planets to spiral into the sun? ...................... I am saying that Su doesn not use the "Lorentz trasnformaiton of ... time" as implied by quote above. ************************************ [regarding cesium clocks] Sell then it is only your hypothesis that cesium clocks are analogous to sound based clocks. I do not agree with the analogy. Tom Clarke -- Posted via Mailgate.ORG Server - http://www.Mailgate.ORG |
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6th February 18:21
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Posts: 1
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I don't know. Ask the news reader software at www.mailgate.org
At mailgate.org which I started using as it responds faster than google, is more reliable than the local universities newsfeed, and easier to get to (usually) than AOL, I notice that the subthread you started with "How to ..." title from the "Anti-ether..." thread shows up as the same single thread, unlike google. I guess it gets confused once in a while. I don't do it on purpose. Of course, I do harbor suspicians that Barry is a Dennis alter ego. Correlations in absences, tendency to read same threads etc. Do you really think there are any other readers than us? Only to the suspicious. Tom Clarke -- Posted via Mailgate.ORG Server - http://www.Mailgate.ORG |
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7th February 16:11
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Posts: 1
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He is 2D being, by definition he cannot observe the 3rd dimension.
You are trying to convince him that he should adopt a theory that incorporates a 3rd dimension on the basis of his 2D evidence. If he can observe it then he is not a Flatlander. If you succeed than he is a Flatlander who believes his 2D perceivable world is embedded in a 3D (or higher) non-perceivable space. You want him to "infer" it. He cannot see it. His instruments cannot directly respond to it. He cannot directly "observe" a 3rd dimension. ..................... Yes I did. So is your theory just another way of looking at Minkowski space or not? Will you stop with the Flatlander already? I have no idea what you are trying to get at. Those are pretty well answered by SR. I have no idea what a "wall" is? GR takes care of this. At last an question that might break new ground. Although SR/QM relation is pretty well covered. Do you think you have something to say about about GR/QM? .. Explain what you mean by this, then. I can't even see how you think Flatlanders are observing different 2D surfaces. Aristotle suggesting 4D and complex? What history do you live in? .................... Not "is the point", but "to the point". Don't expect to not get an argument from me about where you take that "yes", though. How do you distinguish between unobservable and non-existent? That is to to the point, I think. You are assuming the conclusion. How do you know that "things that exist are observable"? I'll grant that things that "don't exist are unobservable". And how does that show that what exists is obervable? Don't put words in my mouth. Yes, we might always be wrong - about many things. And what profound meaning do you think this has? Oh that is where you are going. Don't. If you want to go ahead. Argue with yourself then and I'll sign off from this thread. I mentioned things that we have reason to believe will be observed soon, things we are actively looking for. Stuff that might be "serendipitously" discovered in the future could exist but I cannot think of, by definition. Lucy in the sky with diamonds. I can entertain the thought of detecting pink unicorns. If you want details, a strange craft lands on the Whitehous lawn and out steps ... That's it? Talk about trivialities! I disagree with the characterization of sterility. So you think pi is a variable that should be manipulated in theories? Tom Clarke -- Posted via Mailgate.ORG Server - http://www.Mailgate.ORG |
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