george w. harris

I'm not certain, but I think there may have
been an error in administering a technical foul in
this afternoon's Texas-Duke game. In the second
half, after a Texas basket Mouton fouled Dockery,
and then was assessed a technical foul; the foul of
Dockery was the seventh team foul against Texas
in the half. The officials had Dockery shoot the one
and one first (he made both), and then Re**** shot
the technical free-throws, after which Duke got the
ball out of bounds.

Shouldn't Texas have gotten the ball? A
technical foul no longer results in a change of
possession, so shouldn't Texas have gotten the ball
after Dockery made the two free throws? Also,
shouldn't the technical free throws been taken first,
and then the players line up on the lane for the
one-and-one?

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George W. Harris For actual email address, replace each 'u' with an 'i'.